Most Missed Question in Family Medicine Prep – Pituitary Hyperplasia
Severe primary hypothyroidism can cause TRH-driven pituitary hyperplasia that mimics a sellar mass. Learn the lab patterns boards test.
Neuropsychiatric SLE has no single confirmatory test. Learn why MRI, LP, and EEG are supportive only and how boards test diagnosis by exclusion.
Key takeaway: Neuropsychiatric SLE has no single confirmatory test—MRI, CSF, and EEG can support the diagnosis, but boards expect you to recognize it as a diagnosis of exclusion/attribution.
A 46-year-old female with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus has been lost to follow-up. Apparently, she has failed to fill her medications and has not been keeping up with her appointments. The daughter believes the patient has been using illicit drugs. She comes with a fever of 39°C, severe frontal headaches, confusion, and paranoid ideation. Her laboratory test results show leukopenia, hypocomplementemia and an elevated anti-double-stranded DNA antibody.
Which of the following is a confirmatory test for lupus cerebritis?
Examinees often want one “slam-dunk” study (e.g., MRI or CSF) to confirm neuropsychiatric lupus. The point this question tests is that while MRI abnormalities, inflammatory CSF (pleocytosis/protein), and EEG changes are common, they are nonspecific and can overlap with infection (meningoencephalitis), toxin/drug effects, primary psychiatric disease, metabolic encephalopathy, and cerebrovascular events (including antiphospholipid-related thrombosis). Contemporary consensus and society guidance treat neuropsychiatric SLE as a multimodal diagnosis based on clinical syndrome + supportive studies + exclusion of alternative etiologies rather than a single confirmatory test.
Therefore, E (None of the above) remains the most board-reliable answer: these tests are evaluative/supportive, not confirmatory.
| Option | What It Tests / Implies | Why It’s Wrong Here |
|---|---|---|
| A. CT scan of the head | Rapid rule-out of hemorrhage/mass | Helpful in acute evaluation, but typically insensitive for NPSLE and not confirmatory. |
| B. MRI of the brain | Best imaging for inflammatory/ischemic lesions | Can support NPSLE (white matter lesions, infarcts), but findings are nonspecific and may reflect APS stroke, infection, or other pathology. |
| C. Lumbar puncture | CSF pleocytosis/protein; rule out infection | CSF can be abnormal in NPSLE but also in infection; LP is for exclusion and supportive data, not confirmation. |
| D. EEG | Encephalopathy/seizure tendency | Nonspecific diffuse slowing or epileptiform activity does not confirm NPSLE. |
| E. None of the above | Recognizes lack of a single confirmatory test | Correct: diagnosis is clinical + supportive testing + exclusion of alternatives. |
For neuropsychiatric lupus, MRI/CSF/EEG are supportive and primarily help exclude mimics—none is confirmatory.
The stem “hands you” active SLE (low complement, high anti-dsDNA) and neuropsychiatric symptoms, tempting you to pick the most sophisticated test (MRI). But the word confirmatory is the trap: boards reward recognizing that NPSLE is diagnosed through pattern recognition plus exclusion, not a single definitive study.
A 28-year-old woman with SLE on prednisone and mycophenolate presents with fever, headache, photophobia, and confusion. Which test is most urgent to help exclude a key alternative diagnosis before attributing symptoms to NPSLE?
A — Review: Supports SLE activity but does not exclude CNS infection.
B — Correct response!: Immunosuppressed + fever + meningitic features → CSF to evaluate for infectious meningoencephalitis before attribution to NPSLE.
C — Review: Nonspecific; doesn’t rule out infection.
D — Review: Not first-line; limited specificity/availability.
E — Review: Supports flare but not diagnostic and not urgent for exclusion.
A 40-year-old woman with SLE develops sudden right-sided weakness and aphasia. MRI shows an acute left MCA infarct. Which additional finding most strongly supports antiphospholipid syndrome as the mechanism rather than inflammatory NPSLE?
A — Review: Suggests active SLE but not specific for APS thrombosis.
B — Correct response!: Persistent antiphospholipid antibodies meeting criteria support APS-related arterial thrombosis mechanism.
C — Review: Nonspecific encephalopathy finding.
D — Review: Can be seen in NPSLE or infection; not APS-specific.
E — Review: Tracks disease activity but not thrombosis mechanism.
A — Review: MRI is supportive only; lesions are nonspecific.
B — Review: CSF abnormalities are nonspecific and overlap with infection.
C — Review: EEG changes are nonspecific.
D — Correct response!: Core exam concept—attribution/exclusion framework.
E — Review: Anti-dsDNA supports flare but does not confirm CNS attribution.
A 33-year-old woman with SLE has agitation, paranoia, and insomnia starting 5 days after a prednisone dose increase to 60 mg/day. Afebrile; normal complement and stable anti-dsDNA. Most likely explanation?
A — Review: Less likely without fever/meningitic signs; still consider if immunosuppressed.
B — Correct response!: Temporal relationship to high-dose steroids + stable serologies favors steroid-induced psychiatric effects.
C — Review: Possible, but stable complements/anti-dsDNA and timing argue against.
D — Review: Requires serotonergic agent exposure + neuromuscular/autonomic findings.
E — Review: Usually severe hypertension, headache/visual symptoms, characteristic imaging.
A 45-year-old with known SLE presents with fever, confusion, and headache. Exam shows nuchal rigidity. What is the best next step?
A — Review: Steroids may be needed, but infection must be addressed first when suspected.
B — Review: Autoantibodies are not confirmatory and do not supersede infection workup.
C — Correct response!: Febrile meningitic presentation → treat/assess for CNS infection emergently; attribution to NPSLE comes later.
D — Review: EEG is adjunctive; not confirmatory or first step.
E — Review: CT may precede LP to rule out mass effect but does not confirm NPSLE.
Compare two SLE patients with acute confusion: one with fever and nuchal rigidity, and one who became psychotic after a major prednisone escalation—how does your diagnostic sequencing differ, and what “can’t-miss” etiologies change immediate management?
Q1: Is “lupus cerebritis” a distinct diagnosis with a specific test?
A: No. The ABIM-style expectation is that neuropsychiatric SLE is an attribution diagnosis supported by studies but not confirmed by any single test.
Q2: Why isn’t MRI considered confirmatory if it’s often abnormal?
A: Because MRI abnormalities (white matter lesions, infarcts) are nonspecific and overlap with APS thrombosis, infection, migraine, small vessel disease, and other inflammatory conditions—boards test specificity.
Q3: What is the role of lumbar puncture in suspected NPSLE?
A: Primarily to exclude infection and to gather supportive inflammatory data; it does not definitively establish NPSLE.
Q4: What competing diagnosis is especially board-relevant in SLE with stroke symptoms?
A: Antiphospholipid syndrome–related thrombosis; the ABIM expects you to distinguish thrombotic stroke from inflammatory NPSLE processes.
This question appears in Med-Challenger Internal Medicine Review with CME
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