Pediatric Medicine

Most Missed Pediatric Review Question: NF1 Inheritance Pattern

NF1 is autosomal dominant with variable expressivity and frequent de novo mutations. Learn why this genetics question is commonly missed.

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NF1 is classically autosomal dominant (often de novo), and boards expect you to distinguish this from X-linked and autosomal-recessive patterns.

Question – Inheritance pattern

A 4-year-old girl has 7 cafe-au-lait macules over 5 mm in diameter scattered over her body and Lisch nodules on ophthalmic examination. You diagnose her with type 1 neurofibromatosis.

 

 

What is the inheritance pattern of this disorder?

Answer Options:

A. autosomal recessive  
B. X-linked dominant  
C. X-linked recessive  
D. autosomal dominant

NF1 results from pathogenic variants in the NF1 tumor suppressor gene and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern with variable expressivity. A major exam nuance is that many children have no family history because a substantial fraction of cases are de novo, but the inheritance pattern remains autosomal dominant.

This is consistent with modern, exam-relevant references including the American Academy of Pediatrics clinical report (2019) on health supervision in NF1 and GeneReviews (continually updated), both of which characterize NF1 as autosomal dominant.

 

Why This Pediatric Medicine Question Is Often Missed

- Confusion between NF1 vs NF2 features leads learners to overthink inheritance (both are AD, but presentations differ).  
- De novo cases mislead test-takers into assuming autosomal recessive.  
- “Café-au-lait” triggers memorized associations (e.g., McCune-Albright, tuberous sclerosis) instead of pattern recognition.

 

What the Distractors Indicate

Option What It Tests / Implies Why It’s Wrong Here
autosomal recessive “No family history = recessive” heuristic NF1 is autosomal dominant; lack of family history is commonly due to **de novo** mutation, not recessive inheritance.
X-linked dominant Misattribution to sex-linked transmission NF1 affects all sexes equally and is not classically transmitted via X-linked mechanisms.
X-linked recessive Confusing with XLR neurocutaneous syndromes NF1 is not XLR; XLR patterns skew heavily male and show carrier females—doesn’t fit.
autosomal dominant Correct recognition of NF1 genetics Correct; also high-yield: variable expressivity and frequent de novo cases.

 

High-Yield Pearl for Exam Prep

NF1 is autosomal dominant with variable expressivity and a high de novo mutation rate—don’t let “no family history” push you to autosomal recessive.

 

Core Learning Objectives

1. Identify NF1 as an autosomal-dominant neurocutaneous syndrome.  
2. Recognize that de novo mutation is common in NF1 and does not change the inheritance classification tested on boards.

 

The Exam “Test Trick” at Play

The stem gives classic diagnostic features (multiple café-au-lait macules >5 mm in a prepubertal child plus Lisch nodules) and then tests whether you can recall the inheritance pattern without being distracted by the possibility of absent family history—an exam-favorite trap.

 

 

Additional Practice Questions and Remediation for NF1

Pediatric Medicine Practice Question 1 - De novo counseling

A 6-year-old is diagnosed with NF1 and neither parent meets diagnostic criteria. What is the most accurate counseling point?

- A. The child’s condition is autosomal recessive
- B. The condition is autosomal dominant and may be due to a de novo mutation
- C. The condition is X-linked recessive
- D. Recurrence risk is zero for all future pregnancies
- E. Only males transmit the condition

Answer and Remediation

A — Review: NF1 is not autosomal recessive.  
B — Correct response!: NF1 is autosomal dominant; many cases are de novo (AAP 2019; GeneReviews).  
C — Review: NF1 is not X-linked recessive.  
D — Review: Recurrence risk is not universally zero due to possible parental mosaicism.  
E — Review: Transmission is not sex-limited.

Pediatric Medicine Practice Question 2 - Inheritance recognition

A father with clinically apparent NF1 has one child. If the mother is unaffected, what is the approximate risk the child inherits the pathogenic variant?

- A. 0%
- B. 10%
- C. 25%
- D. 50%
- E. 100%

Answer and Remediation

A — Review: Not correct for autosomal-dominant transmission.  
B — Review: Not the standard Mendelian risk.  
C — Review: 25% corresponds to autosomal recessive.  
D — Correct response!: Autosomal dominant confers ~50% transmission risk per pregnancy.  
E — Review: 100% would imply obligatory transmission, which is not the case.

Pediatric Medicine Practice Question 3 - Distinguishing pattern trap

A child has multiple café-au-lait macules and axillary freckling. Which inheritance pattern best matches the most likely diagnosis?

- A. Autosomal recessive
- B. X-linked dominant
- C. X-linked recessive
- D. Autosomal dominant
- E. Mitochondrial

Answer and Remediation
A — Review: Not typical for NF1.  
B — Review: Not consistent with NF1.  
C — Review: Not consistent with NF1.  
D — Correct response!: Classic for NF1, an autosomal-dominant condition.  
E — Review: Not a mitochondrial disorder.

Pediatric Medicine Practice Question 4 - Variable expressivity

A woman with mild NF1 (few café-au-lait macules only) asks about severity in her future child if inherited. Best answer?

- A. Severity is always identical within a family
- B. Severity can vary widely due to variable expressivity
- C. Children will be unaffected if the parent is mildly affected
- D. Severity depends on whether the child is male
- E. Severity is predictable from the number of café-au-lait macules in the parent

Answer and Remediation
A — Review: NF1 does not show fixed intrafamilial severity.  
B — Correct response!: NF1 shows variable expressivity, even among relatives.  
C — Review: Autosomal dominant transmission still carries ~50% risk regardless of parental severity.  
D — Review: Not sex-dependent.  
E — Review: Parental cutaneous findings do not reliably predict child severity.

Pediatric Medicine Practice Question 5 - Exam-level genetics tie-in

Which gene category best describes NF1?

- A. Proto-oncogene
- B. Tumor suppressor gene
- C. Mismatch repair gene
- D. Mitochondrial gene
- E. Imprinting control gene

Answer and Remediation
A — Review: NF1 is not a proto-oncogene.  
B — Correct response!: NF1 encodes neurofibromin, a tumor suppressor (RAS pathway regulation).  
C — Review: That pattern fits Lynch syndrome genes, not NF1.  
D — Review: Not mitochondrial inheritance.  
E — Review: Not an imprinting disorder.

Mini Case Discussion Prompt

How would your genetic counseling differ for (1) a child with NF1 and unaffected parents versus (2) a child with NF1 and an affected parent—specifically regarding recurrence risk and the concept of mosaicism?

 

Mini FAQ

Q1: Does “no family history” change NF1 from autosomal dominant to something else?  
A1: No. The ABP/board exams expect recognition that NF1 remains autosomal dominant and often arises de novo.

Q2: Are NF1 and NF2 inherited differently?  
A2: No—both are classically autosomal dominant, but their hallmark clinical findings differ (boards test phenotype distinctions more than inheritance differences).

Q3: What single phrase best describes NF1 inheritance for exams?  
A3: “Autosomal dominant with variable expressivity and frequent de novo mutations.”

Q4: Why do test writers include Lisch nodules in the stem?  
A4: It anchors the diagnosis to NF1 so the inheritance question becomes a direct recall/recognition task—common on pediatrics boards.


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