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    35 year-old woman presents with limp, swollen, erythematous knee

    A 35-year-old woman presents to you with a limp. She lifts up her pant leg to show you a swollen, erythematous knee joint, and she states she has had mild fever at home. While you are taking her history, you ascertain that she recently fell down the stairs and sprained her ankle. She is sexually active.

    Which of the following is true about septic arthritis?

    • Septic arthritis is usually polyarticular.
    • It occurs most commonly in women who are sexually active.
    • In adults, the most commonly affected joint is the knee.
    • Direct inoculation from trauma or surgery is the most common cause.
    The correct answer is:

    In adults, the most commonly affected joint is the knee.

     

    Key Point:

    Septic arthritis has clearly defined risk factors and clinical characteristics on presentation that are essential to early identification and treatment.

    Explanation:

    Septic arthritis most commonly results from the hematogenous migration of bacteria into the joint. The infection is almost always monoarticular, with the knee being the most commonly affected joint in adults. In children, the most commonly affected joints are the hips and knees. Septic arthritis occurs in all age groups, but it is more common in children. Two-thirds of pediatric cases occur in patients younger than 2 years of age. The diagnosis of septic arthritis requires joint aspiration.

    References:

    Kellerman RD, et al, eds. Conn’s Current Therapy. 2018.

    Walls R, et al. Rosen’s Emergency Medicine: Concepts and Clinical Practice. 9th ed., 2018.

     

    This question appears in Med-Challenger Family Medicine Exam Review with CME

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